V.B. Lamb’s unanswered questions

(see this article)

  1. If Henry VII “knew” that Edward IV‘s sons were dead by the time of his accession, why did he take nineteen years to produce any “evidence”, particularly when two individuals appeared claiming to be one or both of those “Princes” in 1487 and 1491?
  2. If he “knew” that Edward IV hadn’t committed bigamy, why did he not “induce” Stillington to sign a confession, instead of imprisoning him and destroying the evidence he showed to convince the Three Estates?

By super blue

Grandson of a Town player.

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